Does Morality Point to God? Part 1


Does God exist? If so, how can one know? Can you be sure? 

For centuries, there have been several popular arguments for God's existence. We looked at two of these in previous blogs.  

The first line of evidence which we looked at was the teleological argument. It is the case for design. We looked at two premises: Every design has a designer. The universe displays highly complex design. Therefore our conclusion was that the universe has a designer. Read the full blog here


The second line of evidence for God’s existence was called the cosmologic alargument. Simply put, the cosmological argument is the argument for causation. In other words, every effect must have a cause. We look at two premises: Whatever begins to exist has a cause. The universe began to exist. Therefore our conclusion was that the universe has a cause.  Read the full blog here

By the end of the two blogs that we can be MEGA SURE of God’s existence.

In this blog, we want to continue to build our case for God’s existence. And today’s evidence I believe is vitally important. Not just for us as believers, but for the culture. The culture says there are no moral absolutes. And as we can see, our society is crumbling because of this belief.

But if moral absolutes do exist, then there must be a reason for them. And that’s what we want to talk about today. We want to talk about the natural or moral law.

The third line of evidence is the moral law argument.

The moral law argument says this: 
1. Every law has a law giver. 
2. There is a Moral law. 
3. Therefore, there is a Moral Law Giver.

It’s very similar to the other arguments we looked at last week. Again, we’ll evaluate each premise and if they are true, our conclusion should be sound.

Let’s start back with premise 1: Every law has a law giver. This is self-evident. To have legislation, you need to have a legislator. To have a rule, you must have a rule maker. To have a law, you need a law maker. To deny this goes against common sense. Premise one is self-evident and no more needs to said about it.

So what about premise 2? There is a moral law.
Well, does the Bible teach this? As we said last week, we want to interpret God’s world thorugh God’s Word. So what does the Bible have to say about this?

Look at what Paul writes in Romans 2:12-16 “For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; 13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified. 14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, 15 in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, 16 on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus.”

Paul writes the Jews have a physical written Law that came from God, but even the Gentiles people who weren’t Jewish have a law written on their hearts. A moral code of do’s and don’ts that are built into them. The same applies to you and I today.

But does this correspond to reality?

This is where the debate really begins. There are two common push backs when it comes to an objective moral law. We'll look into these push backs in the next blog. 

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